Davinci Medical Academy

General MEDICINE

1. MC type of lung ca - Adeno ca

2. 2nd MC lung ca - Squamous cell ca
3. Lung ca with worst prognosis - small cell ca
4. Best prognosis among lung ca - Squamous cell ca
5. MC metastasizing to opposite lung - Adeno ca
6. Lung ca most responsive to chemo & radiotherapy - small cell ca
7. MC type in non-smokers - Adeno ca
8. MC in peripheral location lung ca - Adeno ca
9. MC in females - Adeno ca
10. Koplik spots - Measles
11. Roth spots - SABE
12. Bitot’s spots - vitamin A deficeincy
13. Herald spots - pityriasis rosea
14. Ecg changes in hyperkalemia - shortening of QT interval, prolonged PR, tall peaked T
15. Rx for hyperkalemia - calcium gluconate, insulin,
16. Hypocalcemia ECG changes - prolonged QT interval
17. Paradoxical breathing - diaphragmatic palsy
18. Amphoric breathing - pneumothorax
19. Cavernous breathing - cavitation
20. Tubular breathing - consolidation
21. Type 1 resp failure - parenchymal disease/ARDS/emphysema/pneumonia
22. Type 2 rsep failure - COPD/ flail chest
23. CXR - tram track lines for bronchiectasis
24. MC site of bronchiectasis - left lower lobe
25. Clubbing is seen in bronchiectasis
26. IOC for bronchiectasis is - HRCT scan
27. Exudative pleural effusions seen in - RA/ bronchogenic Ca
28. Blood stained pl.effusion Is seen In - pulmonary infarction/metastatic ca
29. Farmers lung - Associated with moldy hay
30. Bagassossis - caused by - thermoactinomycetes sacchrii
31. Bagassossis - associated with - sugar cane dust
32. Ghon’s focus is suggestive of - healed primary pulmonary TB
33. Pneumocystis carinii - fungus causing pneumonia in AIDS / interstitial pneumonitis
34. MC Ca causing superior vena caval syndrome - small cell Ca (oat cell ca)
35. MC & earliest manifestation of pulmonary embolism - Dyspnea
36. ECG findings in pulmonary embolism - S1Q3T3
37. Signs seen on CXR for PE - hampton’s sign / west mark sign
38. Gold standard investigation for pulmonary embolism - pulmonary angiography
39. Ground glass appearance is seen in - ARDS
40. Water hammer pulse is seen in - Aortic regurgitation
41. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in - Asthma / pericarditis / cardiac tamponade
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Davinci Medical Academy
42. Soft S1 - mitral stenosis -long standing calcified
43. Loud S1 - mitral stenosis - prolonged flow through AV valve
44. Wide split S2 - ASD / pulmonary stenosis
45. Reverse splitting of S2 - left bundle branch block / aortic stenosis
46. S3 is heard in - children / hyperdynamic status /Athletes /LVF /constrictive
Pericarditis
47. Causes of S4 - HTN / HOCM / MR
48. Wolff parkinson white syndrome - ecg changes - short PR / wide QRS complex
49. Rx for WPW syndrome - procainamide / amiadarone / radio frequency ablation
50. Features of Torsade de pointes is - prolonged QTc interval
51. Arrythmia MC ass with alcohol binge - Atrial fibrillation
52. Rx of digoxin over dose includes - potassium / lignocaine / phenytoin
53. Major criteria RHD - subcutaneous nodules / erythema marginatum / syndenham’s
chorea / carditis / migratory polyarthritis
54. Associated terms for RHD - Aschoff bodies / pancarditis / Mc callum patch
55. Mid diastolic murmur is heard in - MVP
56. Ejection systolic murmur can be heard in - HOCM
57. MC cause of sub-acute endocarditis - streptococcus viridans
58. MC cause acute endocarditis - staphylococcus aureus
59. Amino acid ass with atherosclerosis - Homocysteine
60. Organism ass with coronary atherosclerosis - chlamydia
61. Sensitive marker for MI - Troponin T
62. CXR Cardiac tamponade: - big globular heart
63. Beck’s triad - Hypotension / silent heart / raised JVP
64. Kussmaul sign is seen in - constrictive pericarditis
65. Commonest cause of anemia in India is - iron deficiency anemia

General Medicine
 66. Causes of iron deficiency anemia – Hookworms, celiac sprue, Ca colon
67. Most sensitive & specific test for diagnosing IDA - serrum ferritin levels
68. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by - liver disease, fish tapeworm infestation, Tab.
phenytoin
69. Hematological finding for megaloblastic anemia - multisegmented nuclei,
anisocytosis(inc.variation in size of RBC)
70. Features for hemolytic anemia - inc. Reticulocyte count inc.LDH
71. Sickel cell anemia - replacement of glutamate by valine
72. MC symp. Of sickle cell - Bone pain
73. Fish mouth vertebra is seenn in - Sickle cell anemia
74. Hyperviscosity of blood is seen in - polycythemia rubra vera
75. MC inherited bleeding disorder is seen in - von willebrand disease
76. Reed sternberg cell is seen in - Hodgkin’s lymphoma
77. Musculoskeletal findings SLE : non erosive arthritis
78. Renal manifestations SLE - papillary necrosis & wire loop lesions are seen in -
79. Specific antibody for SLE - Anti-ds DNA
80. Proximal limb muscles are involved in - polymyositis
81. Pharyngeal muscles are involved in - polymyositis
82. Raised CPK are seen in - polymyositis
83. Proximal muscle weakness is seen in - Myasthenia gravis
84. Symptoms of myasthenia gravis - dysphagia & dysarthria
85. MC site of cushings ulcer - distal duodenum
86. MC site of peptic ulcer - 1st part of duodenum
87. Stress ulcer after burns - curlings ulcer
88. MC complication of peptic ulcer - Hemorhage
89. Toxic megacolon is seen in - Ulcerative colitis

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90. KF rings in cornea is seen in - wilsons disease
91. Characteristic histological feature of DM nephropathy is - kimmelstiel wilson
nodule
92. Severe proteinuria is seen in - nephrotic syndrome
93. MC cause of paroxysmal HTN - pheochromocytoma
94. MC cause of dementia in elderly - Alzhiemers disease
95. Ascending type of motor paralysis is seen in - GBS
96. Rx for GBS - plasmapheresis & immunoglobulin
97. MCC of meningitis in elderly adults - S.pneumonia
98. MCC of meningitis in young adults - Neisseria
99. Argyll robertson pupil is seen in - Neurosyphilis
100. MCC of neuropathic joint disease is - DM
101. MC joint affected by DM - tarsal joints
102. Radiosensitive lung carcinoma - small cell carcinoma
103. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is ass with - pancinar emphysema
104. IOC for bronchiectasis - HRCT
105. IOC for aortic dissection - MRI
106. Mc callum patch is seen in - RHD
107. IOC for Mitral stenosis - Echocardiography
108. Austin flint murmur is seen in - severe aotic regurgitation
109. pacemaker is indicated in – Acute MI with AV block / Acute MI with fasicular block
/ sick sinus syndrome
110. Pt presents with engorged neck veins, BP-80/50, HR-100 following blunt
trauma to chest, Diagnosis is - Cardiac tamponade
111. Coarcation of aorta is ass with - turner’s synd / renal artery stenosis /
bicuspid aortic valve / atresia of aortic arch
112. In stable angina - Myoglobin is elevated
113. Cor pulmonale causes - right ventricular hypertrophy
114. Acute anginal attack can be terminated by - Nitroglycerin
115. DOC in acute pulmonary edema - furosemide
116. Becks triad is ass with - cardiac tamponade
117. MC type of hodgkins lymphoma is - Nodular sclerosis
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118. MC type of hodgkin’s lymphoma in India is - Mixed cellularity

119. MC presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma - palpable lymphadenopathy
120. Wireloop lesions are seen n - SLE
121. Pseudohypertrophy of muscles is a feature of - Duchenne muscular dystrophy
122. Specific test for diagnosing whipple disease - biopsy
123. MC complication of peptic ulcer - Bleeding
124. Haemophilia A is low levels of factor 8
125. Most effective treatment of aplastic anemia - Bone marrow transplantation
126. Visual impairment is seen in which anti tubercular drug - Ethambutol
127. Deafness is seen in which anti tubercular drug - streptomycin
128. Most common form of shock is - Hypovolemic shock
129. Hemodialysis will be helpful in poisoning of - barbiturate /methanol /salicylate

General Medicine
 130. Fresh frozen plasma is used for - deficiency of coagulation factor
131. Diagnostic test for DIC - D-Dimer assay
132. MCC of death in pt on chronic hemodialysis - cardiovascular disease
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133. Pulsatile liver & ascites is found in - tricuspid regurgitation

134. MC affected valve in RHD is - Mitral
135. Dresslers syndrome is due to - MI
136. Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard in - ASD
137. Defeciency of niacin causes - pellagra
138. ST segment elevation is seen in - MI/left ventricular aneurysm/acute pericarditis/
prinzmetal angina
139. Swan Ganz catheter is used to measure - pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
140. MC feature of essential hypertension - Headache
141. LVH is caused by - CRF/ess.HTN/AS & not in chronic cor pulmonale
142. Acute anginal attack can be terminated by - Nitroglycerine
143. Most common arrythmia - atrial fibrillation
144. Indication for Aortic stenting is - Aortic dissection
145. One of the main disadvantage of stenting is - late stent thrombosis
146. Preferred biochemical markers in pts in MI - cardiac specific Troponins
147. Split 1st Heart sound is heard in - complete right bundle branch block
148. Austin flint murmur is a - Mid diastolic murmur
149. Dyspnea at rest is - Grade 4
150. Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by - Echocardiography
151. MC valvular lesion after MI - MR
152. Pulsus alternans is seen in - left ventricular failure
153. Kussmaul’s sign is seen in - constrictive pericarditis / restrictive cardiomyopathy /
pericardial effusion / RV infarction / Rt.heart failure / cardiac tumours / tricuspid

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 stenosis
154. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in - cardiac tamponade / pericarditis / chronic sleep
apnea / croup / Obstructive lung disease
155. Drugs used for prophylaxis of rheumatic heart disease - sulfadiazine / phenoxy
methyl penicillin / benzathine penicillin
156. Drug contraindicated in HOCM - Digoxin
157. Metabolic complications in CRF includes - hyperkalemia / hypocalcemia/
hypokalemia & not hypophosphatemia
158. Hematuria,RBC casts & proteinuria aer suggestive of - Acute nephritic syndrome
159. In membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis the characteristic feature is -
thickening & splitting of capillary basement membrane
160. Chronic kidney disease is defined as GFR less than - 60
161. Microalbuminuria refers to urinary albumin excretion rate of - 30-300 mg/day
162. Renal artery stenosis is ass with - atherosclerosis, polyarteritis nodosa/takayasu
arteritis & not Marfan’s syndrome
163. To diagnose diabetic nephropathy, earliest sensitive test is - microalbuminuria
164. Renal vein thrombosis is ass with - trauma/nephrotic syndrome & dehydration &
not in sickle cell anemia
165. MCC of acute superior mesenteric arterial obstruction is - Embolism
166. Investigation of choice for amoebic liver abscess - serum entamoeba antibodies
167. Puddle sign is seen in - Ascites
168. Bence jones protein in urine is suggestive of - Multiple myeloma
169. Gold standard method of diagnosing celiac disease is - small bowel biopsy
170. Typhoid ulcer - longitudinal/peyer’s patches/perforation is common/ bleeding is
common & stricture is rare
171. Budd chiari syndrome is - hepatic vein thrombosis
172. Most imp investigation for diagnosis of zollinger ellison syndrome is - secretin
injection test
173. Best marker to assess prognosis after surgery for colon carcinoma - CEA
174. Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in - 3-4 weeks
175. Features of carcinoid syndrome - wheezing / diarrhea / flushing
176. Young man to casuality with hematemesis with mild splenomegaly cause of
bleeding is - esophageal varices
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177. Pt with vomitting contents of food taken few days back with foul smelling
breath & occasional dysphagia to solid food diagnosis is - Zenker’s diverticulum
178. Hepatospleenomegaly is not seen in - sickle cell disease
179. Chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is - 0.3 %
180. Screening test for HIV infection in pt prior to development of antibodies(early
diagnosis) (in window period)-p24 antigen
181. Fecal-oral transmission occurs in - poliomyelitis
182. Spirochetes can be identified by - dark field microscopy
183. MC CNS manifestation of HIV infection is - Dementia
184. Bacteria causing vomitting & diarrhea within 6 hrs of food intake is - staph
aureus
185. Within 8-16 hrs - clostridium perfringens
186. More than 16 hrs - salmonella spp &vibrio cholerae
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 187. Drug used to treat cryptococcal meningitis is - Amphotericin B
188. Drug given as a single dose to prevent mother to child HIV transmission -
Nevirapine
189. Which infection is common after organ transplantation - cytomegalovirus
190. Most common malignancy in AIDS is - kaposi sarcoma
191. Average incubation period of AIDS is - 10 yrs
192. Pathognomic lesion in HIV is - oral leukoplakia
193. Acromegaly is ass with - nasal sinus enlargement/increased heel pad thickness/
DM & not muscle hypertrophy
194. Whipple’s triad - symptom’s of hypoglycemia/low blood glucose & symp. Improve
after glucose administration
195. MCC of spontaneous hypoglycemia in non diabetic individual - alcohol
consumption
196. Dawn phenonmenon refers to - early morning hyperglycemia
197. Which nerve is most commonly affected in diabetic mononeuropathy -
oculomotor
198. MCC of congenital hypothyroidism - Thyroid agenesis
199. Rx of childhood hypothyroidism - Levothyroxine
200. Features of hypothyroidism - carpal tunnel syndrome / cold intolerance /
increased sleep / TSH level increased
201. Seen in conn’s syndrome - Hypernatremia
202. Features of hyperthyroidism - heat intolerance / weight loss / inc.appetite /
tachycardia / HTN/tremor / muscle wasting / nervousness/gynecomastia /
hypercalcemia / chronic diarrhea
203. Which plays an imp. Role in Rx of DKA - Insulin
204. MCC of hyperparathyroidism - Adenoma
205. Cushing’s syndrome - weght gain / HTN / hirsutism & not hypoglycemia
206. MCC of hypothyroidism in India - Iodine defeciency
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207. IOC for primary hypothyroidism - elevated TSH
208. MC form of diabetic neuropathy is – sensory motor polyneuropathy
209. Test of choice for diagnosing cushings syndrome - overnight low dose dexa
suppression test
210. Hypercalcemia is decreased by - etidronate / calcitonin / glucocorticoids & not
with lithium
211. ECG changes of hypomagnesemia is - increased QT interval
212. Chvostek sign is seen in - hypocalcemia
213. ECG findings in hypokalemia - increased U wave / increased PR interval with
ST dep
214. Increased anion gap is seen in - starvation / salicylate poisoning / renal failure/
DKA/ methanol &ethanol poisoning / lactic acid
215. Normal anion gap is seen in - diarrhea
216. Neurological manifestation of water intoxication - headache / confusion /
convulsion
217. Features of hyponatremia - nausea / vomitting / anorexia
218. ECG changes for few conditions Hypocalcemia - prolonged ST & QT interval
219. Hypercalcemia - shortened ST seg & widened T wave
220. Hypokalemia - ST depression,Flat or inverted T wave i prominent U wave
221. Hyperkalemia - Tall,peaked T wave,flat P wave,wide QRS comp ,prolonged PR
interval
222. Hypomagnesemia - Tall T waves with depressed ST segments
223. Hypermagnesemia - prolonged PR interval with widened QRS complex
224. Easily recognised sign for Zinc defeciency - white spots/bands or lines on finger
nails
225. Pontine myelinosis occurs due to rapid correction of - Hyponatremia
226. Wernicke’s encephalopathy - Thiamine defeciency
227. CSF findings in tubercular meningitis - raised protein, decreased glucose,
increased lymphocytes
228. B/L facial palsy is seen in - GBS
229. Causes of clubbing - bronchogenic Ca / empyema / bronchiectasis
230. Drugs used in Rx of status asthmaticus - Mgso4 / corticosteroid / adrenaline

General Medicine
 231. Lung Ca is MC ass with - Asbestosis
232. Features seen in ARDS - pulmonary edema / hypoxemia / stiff lung
233. Hypercapnia is seen in - severe asthma / anaphylaxis / inhalational burn injury
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234. Silicosis is ass with - pulmonary fibrosis

235. Signs of cor pulmonale - elevated JVP / hepatomegaly / peripheral edema
236. MC occupational malignancy in India is - Skin
237. Positive End expiratory pressure is useful in - ARDS/pneumonia/pulmonary
edema/ Atelectasis
238. ECG pattern seen in - pulmonary embolism is - S1Q3T3
239. MC ECG change in Pulmonary embolism - Sinus tachycardia
240. MC symptom of ILD is - Dyspnea
241. IOC for diagnosing lung sequestration is - Angiography
242. Hemoptysis is commonly seen in - pulmonary thromboembolism
243. Panacinar emphysema - alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
244. Treatment regimen for hodgkin’slymphoma ABVD (adriamycin, bleomycin,
vinblastin, dacarbazine)
245. Treatment regimen for multiple myeloma – VAD
246. Features seen in Tumor lysis syndrome- Hyperuricemia / hyperkalemia /
hyperphos phatemia / Hypocalcemia / ARF
247. Male presents with gynecomastia ,galactorhea,& hypogonadism, likely
diagnosis is Prolactinoma
248. Tumour lysis syndrome is ass with treatment of - Burkitt’s lymphoma
249. Prognosis of lymphoma depends on - number of lymphoid sites / Tumour size &
tumour stage
250. Rx for managing prolactinoma - Bromocriptine
251. Smoking predisposes - Ca larynx / Ca bladder / Ca esophagus
252. Immunoglobin that crosses placenta - IgG
253. Immunoglobin that found in mucus secretion - IgA
254. Immunoglobin involved in - Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction - IgE
255. Mechanism of action of thalidomide is - Immunomodulation
256. Edema is visible when the amount of fluid accumulated is - 5-6 litres
257. 45yrs old man c/o back pain & multiple joint pain.x-ray shows b/l sacroiliitis,
diagnosis could be - Ankylosing spondylitis
258. Pt c/o finger stiffness & dysphagia, probable diagnosis is - Scleroderma
259. Premalignant condition - leukoplakia / crohn’s disease / ulcerative colitis & not
retinitis pigmentosa
260. Hypercholesterolemia is commonly ass with - nephrotic syndrome / obstructive
liver disease / cushing’s synd / hypothyroidism / CRF / DM
261. Most specific antibody for SLE - Anti sm-antibodies
262. Bone age corresponds to chronological age in - familial short stature
263. Preobesity is defined as BMI of - 25-29.9
264. Under weight - BMI less than - 18.5 & normal weight - 18.5 - 24.9
265. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in - MI / biliary cirhosis / pregnancy & not in
pernicious anemia
266. Tourniquet test is positive if the petechiae are more than - 20 petechiae per
square inch
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267. MCC of short stature is - Constitutional
268. Most severe & persistent symptom for acute mountain sickness is - headache
269. DOC for acute attack of migraine - sumatriptan
270. Methods used to decrease ICP - frusemide / Mannitol / hyperventilation
271. Non-diabetic, non-hypertensive adult male develops sudden severe head ache
with altered sensorium,likely diagnosis is - SAH
272. MC location of HTN hemorrhage - putamen / external capsule
273. Commonest cause of intra cerebral bleed is- HTN
274. SDH MC results from - injury to cortical bridging veins
275. Chromosomal anomaly ass with Alzheimer’s dementia is - Trisomy 21
276. Alzheimers disease is ass with - Dementia
277. Triad of normal-pressure hydrocephalus includes - Gait disorder, urinary
incontinence, Dementia
278. Feature of wernicke encephalopathy - Alteration in mental function/
opthalmoplegia / Ataxia
279. Features of Parkinsonism - Tremors at rest /Akinesia / Rigidity
280. Painless burn in hand is a feature of - syringomyelia
281. Vit B12 deficiency can give rise to - Myelopathy / optic atrophy / peripheral
neuropathy
282. Pyramidal tract involvement with absent ankle jerk is seen in - Fredricke’s
ataxia
283. Most sensitive test for diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis - positive edrophonium
test
284. Dystrophic gene mutation leads to - Duchenne muscular dystrophy
285. DOC for Herpes simplex encephalitis is - Acyclovir
286. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is a disease of - Sacrolemmal proteins
287. Gene for myotonic dystrophy is coded in chromosome number - 19
288. Characteristic feature of frontal lobe tumour is - Antisocial behaviour
289. Feat. of struge weber syndrome-Railtrack app./hemiatrophy of brain/convulsion
290. Pure motor paralysis is seen in - Polio
291. Earliest manifestation of increased ICP following head injury - ipsilateral
papillary dilatation
292. Lewy bodies seen in - Parkinsonism
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293. Psammomma bodies seen in - Meningioma

294. MC brain tumour in children is - Medulloblastoma
295. Cobweb formation in CSF seen in - Tuberculosis
296. MCC of SAH - rupture or vertebral artery aneurysm
297. Alzheimer’s disease is ass with - Dementia
298. In TB meningitis ,CSF finding is - Low sugar
299. Lithium used in pregnant woman ,congenital anomaly in baby is -Ebstein
anomaly
300. Prolactin secretion is inhibited by - Dopamine
301. DOC for epilepsy in pregnancy is - Phenobarbitone
302. Osteomalacia, gingival hyperplasia & facial hirsutism are side effects of -
Phenytoin

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 303. Antipsychotic drug induced parkinsonism is treated by - Anticholinergics
304. MCC of cushing syndrome - Iatrogenic steroid
305. Clinical feature of cushing’s syndrome - insulin resistance / violaceous striae /
centripetal obesity / HTN / frank psychosis / hypokalemia
306. MCC of adrenal insufficiency in India - Tuberculosis
307. Features of Addison’s disease - Asthenia / Hyperpigmentation / Abdominal pain /
Hypotension / Hyperkalemia / hyponatremia / hypoglycemia
308. Conn’s syndrome is ass with - HTN / muscle weakness / hypokalemia
309. HLA ass Diabetes - Type 1
310. Pt having fasting & postprandial sugar within limits but urine sugar is 3 +
diagnosis is Renal Glycosuria
311. Dancing carotid is seen in - Thyrotoxicosis
312. Best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorder - TSH
313. MCC of Thyroiditis is - Hashimotos thyroiditis
314. MC presentation of endemic goiter is - Hypothyroid
315. Pheochromocytoma predominantly secretes - Norepinephrine
316. Zolinger ellison synd triad s - peptic ulcer,gastric hypersecretion,nonbeta cell
tumour
317. Carcinoid tumour is most common in - Appendix
318. Treatment of Hypercalcemia includes - galium nitrate/plicamycin/Etidronate
319. Common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is - solitary parathyroid
adenomas
320. Osteoporosis may be seen in- thyrotoxicosis / chronic heparin therapy / steroid
therapy/RA / hyperparathyroidism
321. 30yrs female presents with secondary amenorhea with galactorhea likely
cause is Prolactinoma
322. SIADH is ass with - Small cell carcinoma lung
323. SIADH is characterized by - hyponatremia & urine sodium excretion >20meq/l
324. Drug essential in Sheehan’s syndrome - cortisone
325. Weight gain will not occur in - pheochromocytoma / T1DM / adrenal insufficiency
326. Weight gain is a feature of - cushing’s syndrome/hypothyroidism/insulin
secreting tumour/hypogonadism
327. In Barium study rat tail neck appearance suggestive of - CA esophagus
328. Preferred investigation for patient with malena is - Upper GI endoscopy
329. Foul breathing regurgitates 3 days before eaten food likely to be - Zenker’s
diverticulum
330. Cock screw esophagus is seen in - diffuse esophagus spasm
331. Hyperkeratosis of palm & sole is ass with - CA esophagus
332. Barret’s esophagus is - Lower esophagus lined by columnar epithelium
333. H.pylori is known to cause - gastric ulcer / Duodenal ulcer / Gastric lymphoma
334. Diagnostic test of H.pylori includes-Urea breath test/rapid urease test
335. DOC in pts on NSAIDS induced gastritis- Misoprostol
336. Duodenal ulcer is preventable by the use of - H2 blocker as HS dose
337. Toxic megacolon is MC ass with - Ulcerative colitis
338. Gut hypomotility is feature of - Ulcerative colitis

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339. MC CNS manifestation of whipple’s disease is - Dementia
340. DOC for ulcerative colitis - Sulfasalazine
341. Massive bleeding per rectum in a 70 yr old male is due to - Diverticulosis
342. Causes of Acute pancreatitis - Gall stones / Alcohol / hypertriglyceridemia
343. Increased Amylase may be seen in - pancreatic pseudocyst / perforated peptic
ulcer / ruptured ectopic pregnancy
344. Cause of acute loss of vision in a patient of alcoholic pancreatitis - Purtscher’s
retinopathy
345. True of pseudo pancreatic cyst - common after acute pancreatitis / presents as an
abdominal mass / MC site is head of pancreas
346. Zollinger ellison syndrome Triad - peptic ulcer, gastric hypersecretion / non beta
cell tumour
347. DOC in Zollinger ellison syndrome -PPI
348. Things involved in protection of stomach mucosa - prostaglandins / mucus /
bicarbonate
349. MCC of lower GI bleed in children - Meckel’s diverticulum
350. Pseudo polyps are seen on endoscopy in - Ulcerative colitis
351. Gynaecomastia is an adverse effect of - Cimetidine
352. Drug inhibiting gastric acid secretion & increasing mucus & bicarbonate
secretion is Misoprostol
353. Best site for taking biopsy for viral esophagitis - edge of ulcer
354. Leiomyoma is most common in - Stomach
355. Type of anemia caused by illeocaecal TB - Megaloblastic
356. Sister mary joseph nodules are found in - Gastric Ca
357. Passage of solid foods is easier than liquids in - Achalasia cardia
358. Typhoid ulcers features - hemorhage is common / occurs in lymphoid aggregation
/ Longitudinal ulcers
359. Salt losing nephritis - Interstitial nephritis
360. Renal pappillary necrosis is almost ass with T2DM
361. Nephrotic syndrome features - Hypoproteinemia / edema / hyperlipidemia
362. Presenting manifestation of Alport syndrome - Haematuria
363. 8yrs boy with diarrhea, decreased urine output & platlets of 90,000 diagnosis
is - Hemolytic uremic syndrome
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364. 10yrs boy hematuria after 2 days of diarhea blood film shows fragmented RBC
with thrombocytopenia & on USG shows marked enlarged both kidneys
diagnosis is - renal vein thrombosis
365. Polycystic kidney disease may have cysts in - Liver / pancreas / spleen
366. Nephritic syndrome - smoky urine / elevated BP / dysmorphic RBC
367. Microalbunminuria is seen in - DM nephropathy
368. Major risk factor for Bladder Ca is - Aniline dye exposure
369. Sterile pyuria is seen in - TB/analgesic abuse / bladder Ca
370. Anemia seen in CRF is - normocytic normochromic
371. Drug useful in diabetic nephropathy is - Captopril
372. Diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia on long term use is - Spirinolactone
373. DOC for central diabetes insipidus is - Hydrochlorothiazide

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 374. K+ sparing diuretic is - spironolactone
375. Mercury affects which part of kidney - proximal convoluted tubule
376. Mesangial deposit of monoclonal kappa/lambda light chain is indicative
of - Amyloidosis
377. Ass with Adult polycystic kidney disease is - berry aneurysms of circle of willis
378. Hepatitis virus having significant perinatal transmission - Hepatitis B virus
379. MC route of spread in Hepatitis E is - Feco-oral route
380. Acute infection of Hepatitis B virus is diagnosed by - IgM antibody of HbcAg
381. Hepatitis most dangerous in pregnancy is - Hepatitis E
382. Enzyme assay useful to diagnose Alcoholism - SGOT
383. Spider naevi can be seen in - RA , cirrhosis of liver / pregnancy
384. Anti-double stranded DNA is highly specific for - SLE
385. P-ANCA is characteristic feature for - microscopic polyangitis
386. C-ANCA is characteristic for - wegeners granulomatosis
387. B/L hilar lymphadenopathy,along with non cesating granulomas is a
charecteristic feature of - Sarcoidosis
388. Most commonly involved in pts with sarcoidosis - 7th cranial nerve
389. Erosive arthritis is seen in - Gout / OA / old age
390. Primary idiopathic polymyositis does not involve - ocular muscles
391. Ankylosing spondylitis is ass with - HLA-B27
392. Type of anemia seen in rheumatoid arthritis - normocytic normochromic anemia
393. Spine affected in Rheumatoid arthritis - Cervical
394. 35yr fm develops PIP,DIP & metacarpophalangeal joints,probable diagnosis is -
RA
395. Specific test for GOUT - raised uric acid in synovial fluid of joint
396. Clubbing is seen in-mesothelioma/bronchiectasis, cyanotic heart dis/primary
biliary cirrhosis
397. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by - Mycoplasma
398. Kartagener syndrome features - cystic fibrosis, dextrocardia, sinusitis
399. MCC of spontaneous pneumothorax - rupture of subpleural bleb
400. MC anterior mediastinal tumour is - Thymoma

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401. Causes of ARDS - fat embolism, septicemia, multiple blood transfusions
402. MC oppurtunistic infection in a HIV pt with CD4 count of 200 - pneumocystis
carinii
403. Monday chest tightness is characteristic of - Bysinosiss
404. Drug contraindicated in HIV coexistent with TB - Rifampicin
405. Acute lung injury is caused by - aspiration, toxic gas inhalation, lung contusion
406. Commonest sign of aspiration pneumonitis is - Cyanosis
407. Rx of chlamydia pneumonia is - Erythromycin
408. MCC of amoebic lung abscess is - direct spread from liver
409. MCC of acute cor pulmonale - pulmonary thromboembolism
410. High amylase level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of - Malignancy
411. In chronic smoker,highly malignant aggressive & metastatic lung Ca is -small
cell ca
412. Commonest type of lung Ca in nonsmokers is - Adenocarcinoma
413. Bronchial adenoma commonly present as - recurrent hemoptysis
414. Cxr normal for 60yrs pt with hemoptysis next line - Bronchoscopy
415. Complication for blood transfusion - metabolic alkalosis, hyperkalemia ,tetany
416. Features for sickle cell anemia - PAH / fish vertebra / increased size of heart
417. Most sensitive & specific test for diagnosis iron defeciency is - serum ferritin
levels
418. Earliest sign of iron defeciency anemia is - decrease in serum ferritin level
419. Features of chronic case of sickle cell anemia - hepatomegaly / pulmonary HTN/
cardiomegaly & not seen is - splenomegaly
420. Acute presentation of sickle cell anemia is - splenomegaly
421. In Beta thalassemia, there is - decrease in beta chain, increase in alpha chain
422. Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is established by - Hb electrophoresis
423. Splenectomy is most useful in - Hereditary spherocytosis
424. Condition ass with coomb’s positive hemolytic anemia - SLE
425. Commonest mode of inheritance of von willebrand disease - Autosomal
dominant
426. Non-palpable purpura is seen in - ITP
427. MC type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is - Nodular sclerosis
428. MC type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma in India is - Mixed cellularity
General Medicine

429. Best prognostic type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is - Lymphocytic predominant

430. In Burkitts lymphoma,translocation seen in chromosome - 8-14 translocation
431. Hairy cell leukemia is a neoplastic proliferation of B.cell
432. TOC in hairy cell leukemia is - Cladribine
433. Features of polycythemia vera - increased GI bleed /Thrombosis/transient visual
loss
434. Most relevant investigation to exclude polycythemia is - Erythropoetin levels
435. Urgent reversal of warfarin induced bleeding can be done by - FFP
436. Reversing the effect of Coumarine therapy - Vit K administration
437. Reversing of Heparin is by - Protamine sulphate
438. Anemia in CRF patient is corrected by - Erythropoetin
439. Good source of iron - liver / egg yolk / jaggery & not milk
General Medicine
 440. MC adverse effect of oral iron therapy - vomitting
441. DOC for acute iron poisoning - desferrioxamine
442. Route of administration of vit B12 in pernicious anemia is - Subcutaeneous
General Medicine

443. Vitamin contra-indicated in G6PD is - Menadione

444. Anticoagulant of choice for heparin induced thrombocytopenia is - Lepirudin
445. Pt with post splenectomy status her blood peripheral smear study would show
presence of - Howell-jolly bodies
446. After several units of Blood transfusion complications might be - Metabolic
alkalosis
447. Low Hb low platelets low WBC suggests - Myelofibrosis
448. MCC of seizures in newborn is - Hypoxia induced ischemic encephalopathy
449. Cyanosis at Birth indicates - TOF/transposition of great vessels/tricuspid atresia
450. Components of APGAR score is - heart rate/BP/Muscle tone
451. Physiological jaundice in a term baby lasts upto - 7 days
452. MCC of pathological jaundice on 1st day of life is - Rh incompatiblity
453. MCC of neonatal mortality in India is - prematurity
454. Nocturnal enuresis may be considered normal up to - 6yrs
455. Anterior fontanelle ossifies by - 18 months
456. Features of down’s syndrome - duodenal atresia
457. Commonest virus causing diarrhea in infants is - Rotavirus
458. Increased fetal Hb is seen in - juvenile CML
459. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid screening is obtained on - cord blood
460. For the prevention of parent to child transmission of HIV,the NACO’s recom
mendation is to give - Niverapine 200mg in active about to mother & syrup
niverapine 2mg/kg body weight to new born within 72 hrs of delivery
461. MC malignancy of the childhood – ALL
462. Not an AIDS defining illness- Tertiary syphilis
463. PSVT with hypotension- DC cardioversion
464. WPW- Bundle of Kent
465. Valvasa and standing result in increase of – HOCM
466. Infective organism causing AV block – Borreia Burgdorferi
467. PICA syndrome known as – Wallenberg syndrome

Davinci Medical Academy

 MCQ’s
1. The syndromic management of urethral B. Herpes Simplex Virus
discharge includes treatment of: C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes D. Rubeola Virus
genitalis. Ans. B
B. Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes
genitalis. 7. Raised serum level of lipoprotein - (a) is a
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia predictor of:
trachomatis. A. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Syphilis and chancroid. B. Rheumatic arthritis
Ans. C C. Atherosclerosis
D. Cervical cancer
2. A 56 year old man presents in the casual- Ans. C
ty with severe chest pain and difficulty in 8. Haemorrhage secondary to heparin admin-
breathing. His ECG was taken immediately. istration can be best corrected by adminis-
The above ECG suggest the following diag- tration of:
nosis: A. Vitamin K
A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Whole blood
B. Acute pulmonary embolism C. Protamine
C. Second degree heart block D. Ascorbic acid
D. Atrial fibrillation Ans. C
Ans. B
9. Which one of the following conditions may
3. All of the following infections are often as- lead to exudative pleural effusion:
sociated with acute intravascular hemolysis A. Cirrhosis
except: B. Nephrotic syndrome
A. Clostridium tetani C. Congestive heart failure
B. Bartonella bacilliformis D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Plasmodium falciparum Ans. D
D. Babesia microti
Ans. A 10. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffer-
ing from Legionnaire’s disease after he re-
4. All of the following are the electrocardio- turns home from attending a convention. He
graphic features of severe hyperkalemia ex- could have acquired it:
cept: A. From a person suffering from the
A. Peaked T waves infection while travelling in the
B. Presence of U waves aeroplane.
C. Sine wave pattern B. From a chronic carrier in the conven-
D. Loss of P waves tion
Ans. B center.
C. From inhalation of the aerosol in the
5. The correct sequence of cell cycle is: air-conditioned room at convention
A. G0 - G1 - S - G2 - M center.
B. G0 - G1 - G2 - S - M D. By sharing an infected towel with a
C. G0 - M - G2 - S - G1 fellow delegate at the convention.
D. G0 - G1 - S - M - G2 Ans. C
Ans. A
11. In a post-operative intensive care unit, five
6. Commonest cause of sporadic encephalitis patients developed post-operative wound
is: infection on the same day. The best method
A. Japanese B Virus to prevent cross infection occurring in other

General Medicine
 patients in the same ward is to: D. 0%
A. Give antibiotics to all other patients in Ans. D
the ward.
B. Fumigate the ward. 15. A 2 month old baby with acute icteric viral
C. Disinfect the ward with sodium hepatitis like illness slips into encephalop-
hypochlorite. athy after 48 hours. The mother is a known
D. Practice proper hand washing. hepatitis B carrier. Mother’s hepatitis B vi-
Ans. D rus serological profile is most likely to be:
A. HBsAg positive only
12. The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthe- B. HBsAg and HBeAg positive
sized by the fetus is: C. HBsAg and HBe antibody positive
A. IgA D. HBV DNA positive
B. IgG Ans. C
C. IgE
D. IgM 16. A 7 year old girl from Bihar presented with
Ans. D three episodes of massive hematemesis
and melena. There is no history of jaundice.
13. The following are true regarding Lyme’s On examination, she had a large spleen,
disease, except: non-palpable liver and mild ascites. Portal
A. It is transmitted by Ixodes tick. vein was not visualised on ultrasonography.
B. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a Liver function tests were normal and endos-
clinical feature. copy revealed esophageal varices. The most
C. Borrelia recurrentis is the aetiological likely diagnosis is:
agent. A. Kala azar with portal hypertension
D. Rodents act as natural hosts. B. Portal hypertension of unknown etiolo-
Ans. C gy
C. Chronic liver disease with portal
14. A couple, with a family history of beta thalas- hypertension
semia major in a distant relative, has come D. Portal hypertension due to extrahepatic
for counselling. The husband has HbA2 of obstruction.
4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The Ans. D
risk of having a child with beta thalassemia
major is: 17. A 40 year old male had undergone splenec-
A. 50% tomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear
B. 25% examination would show the presence of:
C. 5% A. Dohle bodies

Davinci Medical Academy

 B. Hypersegmented neutrophils Ans. B
C. Spherocytes
D. Howell-Jolly bodies 23. All of the following conditions may predis-
Ans. D pose to pulmonary embolism except:
A. Protein S deficiency.
18. Which of the heart valve is most likely to be B. Malignancy.
involved by infective endocarditis following C. Obesity.
a septic abortion? D. Progesterone therapy.
A. Aortic valve Ans. D
B. Tricuspid valve
C. Pulmonary valve 24. An early systolic murmur may be caused by
D. Mitral valve all of the following except:
Ans. B A. Small ventricular septal defect.
B. Papillary muscle dysfunction.
19. Central nervous system manifestations in C. Tricuspid regurgitation.
chronic renal failure are a result of all of the D. Aortic stenosis.
following, except: Ans. D
A. Hyperosmolarity
B. Hypocalcemia 25. Troponin-T is preferable to CPK-MB in the
C. Acidosis diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction
D. Hyponatremia (MI) in all of the following situations except:
Ans. A A. Bedside diagnosis of MI.
B. Postoperatively (after CABG).
20. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is as- C. Reinfarction after 4 days.
sociated with which of the following syn- D. Small infarcts.
drome: Ans. C
A. MEN I
B. MEN II 26. The most common cause of tricuspid regur-
C. Fraumeni syndrome gitation is secondary to:
D. Hashimoto’s syndrome A. Rheumatic heart disease.
Ans. B B. Dilatation of right ventricle.
C. Coronary artery disease.
21. Which of the following statements repre- D. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug
sent most correct interpretation from the abuse.
ECG waveform given below: Ans. B
A. X-originated from an atrial ectopic fo-
cus. 27. Absence seizures are characterized on EEG
B. X reset the cardiac rhythm. by:
C. Both heart sounds would have been A. 3 Hz spike & wave
present at X beat. B. 1-2 Hz spike & wave.
D. The path of spread of excitation was C. Generalized polyspikes.
normal. D. Hypsarrythmia.
Ans. B Ans. A

22. A 60 year old male presented to the emer- 28. All of the following are associated with low
gency with breathlessness, facial swelling C3 levels except:
and dilated veins on the chest wall. The A. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
most common cause is: B. Membrano-proliferative
A. Thymoma. glomerulonephritis.
B. Lung cancer. C. Goodpasture’s disease.
C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma. D. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
D. Superior vena caval obstruction. Ans. C

General Medicine
 C. Ejection click.
29. Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is D. Tumor plop.
caused by: Ans. C
A. Cholera.
B. Starvation. 33. Pulmonary hypertension may occur in all of
C. Ethylene glycol poisoning. the following conditions except:
D. Lactic acidosis. A. Toxic oil syndrome.
Ans. A B. Progressive systemic sclerosis.
C. Sickle cell anaemia.
30. Diagnostic features of allergic broncho-pul- D. Argemone mexicana poisoning.
monary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of Ans. D
the following except:
A. Changing pulmonary infiltrates. 34. Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the
B. Peripheral eosinophilia. following, except:
C. Serum precipitins against Aspergillous A. Mineralocorticoid deficiency.
fumigatus. B. Bartter’s syndrome.
D. Occurrence in patients with old cavi- C. Thiazide diuretic therapy.
tary D. Recurrent vomiting.
lesions. Ans. A
Ans. D
35. The most frequent cause of recurrent geni-
31. The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic tal ulceration in a sexually active male is:
hormone is characterized by the following: A. Herpes genitalis.
A. Hyponatremia and urine sodium B. Aphthous ulcer.
excretion > 20 mEq/l. C. Syphilis.
B. Hypernatremia and urine sodium D. Chancroid.
excretion > 20 mEq/l. Ans. A
C. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.
D. Hypernatremia and hypokalemia. 36. The most effective drug against M. leprae is:
Ans. A A. Dapsone.
B. Rifampicin.
32. All of the following heart sounds occur C. Clofazimine.
shortly after S2 except: D. Prothionamide.
A. Opening snap. Ans. B
B. Pericardial knock.

Davinci Medical Academy

37. A 30-year old HIV positive patient presents B. Global ST segment elevation is seen in
with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive early pericarditis.
cough, patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray C. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding.
reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial D. PR segment depression is present in
infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is: majority of patients.
A. Tuberculosis. Ans. A
B. Cryptococcosis.
C. Pneunocystis carinii pneumonia. 43. Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium
D. Toxoplasmosis. tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:
Ans. C A. Iridocyclitis.
B. Polyarteritis nodosa.
38. Extensive pleural thickening and calcifica- C. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
tion especially involving the diaphragmatic D. Giant cell arteritis.
pleura are classical features of: Ans. C
A. Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis.
B. Asbestosis. 44. The blood gas parameters: pH 7.58, pCO2
C. Silicosis. 23 mmHg, PO2 300 mmHg and oxygen satu-
D. Siderosis. ration 60% are most consistent with:
Ans. B A. Carbon monoxide poisoning.
39. Commonest presentation of neurocysticer- B. Ventilatory malfunction.
cosis is: C. Voluntary hyperventilation.
A. Seizures. D. Methyl alcohol poisoning.
B. Focal neurological deficits. Ans. A
C. Dementia
D. Radiculopathy. 45. Most suitable radioisotope of iodine for
Ans. A treating hyperthyroidism is:
A. I123
40. A 55-year old man who has been on bed rest B. I125
for the past 10 days, complains of breath- C. I131
lessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is D. I132
normal. The next investigation should be: Ans. C
A. Lung ventilation-perfusion scan.
B. Pulmonary arteriography. 46. In the presence of vasopressin the greatest
C. Pulmonary venous angiography. fraction of filtered water is reabsorbed in
D. Echocardiography. which part of the nephron:
Ans. B A. Proximal tubule.
B. Distal tubule.
41. A 60-year old man with diabetes mellitus C. Loope of Henle.
presents with painless, swollen right an- D. Collecting duct.
kle joint. Radiograph of the ankle shows Ans. A
destroyed joint with large number of loose
bodies. The most probable diagnosis is: 47. All of the following statements are correct
A. Charcot’s joint about potassium balance, except:
B. Clutton’s joint A. Most of potassium is intracellular.
C. Osteoarthritis. B. Three quarter of the total body
D. Rheumatoid arthritis. potassium is found in skeletal muscle.
Ans. A C. Intracellular potassium is released into
extra-cellular space in response to
42. All of the following statements regarding severe injury.
the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except: D. Acidosis leads to movement of potassi-
A. T wave inversion develop before ST um
elevations return to baseline. from extracellular to intracellular

General Medicine
 fluid compartment. D. Use of the oestrogen-progesterone
Ans. D contraceptive pills.
Ans. C
48. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the
following features except: 51. A labourer involved with repair-work of
A. Numbness and tingling of circumoral sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice
region. and renal failure. The most appropriate test
B. Hyperactive tendon reflexes. to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
C. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG. A. Weil Felix test.
D. Carpopedal spasm. B. Paul Bunnel test.
Ans. C C. Microscopic agglutination test.
D. Micro immunofluorescence test.
49. Which of the following is not true about Ans. C
Berger’s disease?
A. The pathologic changes are prolifera- 52. Memory T cells can be identified by using
tion the following marker:
and usually confined to mesangial A. CD45 RA.
cells; usually focal and segmental. B. CD45 RB.
B. Hematuria may be gross or microscop- C. CD45 RC.
ic. D. CD45 RO.
C. On immunoflurorescence deposits Ans. D
contain both IgA and IgG.
D. Absence of associated proteinuria is 53. All of the following statements about NK
pathognomonic. cells are true, except:
Ans. D A. They are derived from large granular
cells.
50. All of the following are risk factors for deep B. They comprise about 5% of human
vein thrombosis (DVT) except: peripheral lymphoid cells.
A. Duration of surgery more than thirty C. They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells.
minutes. D. They express IgG Fc receptors.
B. Obesity. Ans. C
C. Age less than forty years.

Davinci Medical Academy

54. Which of the following increases the sus- A. Lidocaine concentration are initially
ceptibility to coronary artery disease: higher in relatively well perfused
A. Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia. tissues such as brain and heart.
B. Von Willebrandt’s disease. B. Histamine receptors in brain and heart
C. Nephrotic syndrome. gets suddenly activated in circulatory
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus. failure.
Ans. D C. There is a sudden out-bursts of release
of adrenaline, noradrenaline and
55. MHC class III genes encode: dopamine in brain and heart.
A. Complement component C3. D. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic
B. Tumor necrosis factor. metabolite due to its longer stay in
C. Interleukin 2. liver.
D. Beta 2 microglobulin. Ans. A
Ans. B
61. All of the following are useful intravenous
56. Gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strong- therapy for hypertensive emergencies, ex-
ly associated with: cept:
A. HLA-DQ2. A. Fenoldopam.
B. HLA-DR4. B. Urapidil.
C. HLA-DQ3. C. Enalapril.
D. Blood group ‘B’. D. Nifedipine.
Ans. A Ans. D

57. Most sensitive and specific test for diagno- 62. Cardiac output measured by thermodilu-
sis of iron deficiency is: tion technique is unreliable in all of the fol-
A. Serum iron levels. lowing situations except:
B. Serum ferritin levels. A. Ventricular septal defect.
C. Serum transferrin receptor population. B. Tricuspid regurgitation.
D. Transferrin saturation. C. Low cardiac output.
Ans. B D. Pulmonary regurgitation.
Ans. A
58. All of the following are poor prognostic fac-
tors for acute myeloid leukemias, except: 63. Exercise testing is absolutely contrain-
A. Age more than 60 years. di-cated in which one of the following:
B. Leucocyte count more than 1,00,000/ A. One week following myocardial
μl. infarction.
C. Secondary leukemias. B. Unstable angina.
D. Presence of t(8;21). C. Aortic stenosis.
Ans. D D. Peripheral vascular disease.
Ans. B
59. Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in
all of the following, except: 64. A nineteen year old female with short stat-
A. Myelofibrosis. ure, wide spread nipples and primary amen-
B. Metastatic carcinoma. orrhoea most likely has a karyotype of:
C. Gaucher’s disease. A. 47, XX+18.
D. Thalassemia. B. 46, XXY.
Ans. D C. 47, XXY.
D. 45 X.
60. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity Ans. D
may result when standard lidocaine doses
are administered to patients with circulato- 65. Osteomalacia is associated with:
ry failure. This may be due to the following A. Decrease in osteoid volume.
reason: B. Decrease in osteoid surface.
General Medicine
 C. Increase in osteoid maturation time. 68. Which of the following hepatitis viruses
D. Increase in mineral apposition rate. have significant perinatal transmission:
Ans. C A. Hepatitis E virus.
B. Hepatitis C virus
66. A 23-year old woman has experienced ep- C. Hepatitis B virus.
isodes of myalgias, pleural effusion, peri- D. Hepatitis A virus.
carditis and arthralgias without joint defor- Ans. C
mity over course of several years. The best
laboratory screening test to diagnose her 69. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLCO) is de-
disease would be: creased in all of the following conditions ex-
A. CD4 lymphocyte count. cept:
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate. A. Interstitial lung disease.
C. Antinuclear antibody. B. Goodpasture’s syndrome.
D. Assay for thyroid hormones. C. Emphysema.
Ans. C D. Primary pulmonary hypertension.
Ans. B
67. A 5-year old boy is detected to be HBsAg
positive on two separate occasions during 70. Osler’s nodes are typically seen in which
a screening program for hepatitis B. He is one of the following:
otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given 3 A. Chronic candida endocarditis.
doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at B. Acute staphylococcal endocarditis.
the age of one year. His mother was treated C. Pseudomonas endocarditis.
for chronic hepatitis B infection around the D. Libman sack’s endocarditis.
same time. The next relevant step for fur- Ans. B
ther investigating the child would be to:
A. Obtain HBe Ag and anti-HBe antibod- 71. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all
ies. of the following except:
B. Obtain anti-HBs levels. A. Food Faddist.
C. Repeat HBsAg. B. Homocystinemia
D. Repeat another course of hepatitis B C. Chronic alcoholic
vaccine. D. Chronic heart failure patients on
Ans. A diuretics.
Ans. B
Davinci Medical Academy
72. Radiation exposure during infancy has been 76. Positive feedback action of estrogen for in-
linked to which one of the following carci- ducting luteinizing hormone surge is asso-
noma: ciated with one of the following steroid hor-
A. Breast. mone ratios in peripheral circulation:
B. Melanoma. A. High estrogen : low progesterone.
C. Thyroid. B. Low estrogen : high progesterone.
D. Lung. C. Low estrogen : low progestrone
Ans. C D. High estrogen : high progesterone.
Ans. A
73. Recurrent ischemic events following throm-
bolysis has been pathophysiologically 77. A post-operative cardiac surgical patient
linked to which of the following factors: developed sudden hypotension, raised cen-
A. Antibodies to thrombolytic agents. tral venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus at
B. Fibrinopeptide A. the 4th post operative hour. The most prob-
C. Lipoprotein (a) [Lp(a)]. able diagnosis is:
D. Triglycerides. A. Excessive mediastinal bleeding.
Ans. A B. Ventricular dysfunction.
C. Congestive cardiac failure.
74. Which of the following is pan-T lymphocyte D. Cardiac tamponade.
marker? Ans. D
A. CD2.
B. CD3. 78. False statement about type I respiratory
C. CD19. failure is:
D. CD25 A. Decreased PaO2
Ans. B B. Decreased PaCO2
C. Normal PaCO2
75. Following are the features of corticospinal D. Normal A-a gradient
involvement except: Ans. D
A. Cog-wheel rigidity.
B. Spasticity. 79. A 60 years old man presents with nonpro-
C. Plantar extensor response. ductive cough for 4 weeks. He has grade III
D. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes. clubbing, and a lesion in the apical lobe on
Ans. A X-ray. Most likely diagnosis here is:
A. Small cell CA

General Medicine
 B. Non-small cell CA A. IV fluids
C. Fungal infection B. Digoxin
D. Tuberculosis C. Diuretics
Ans. B D. Vasodilators
Ans. A
80. A 60 years old man is suspected of having
bronchogenic CA. TB has been ruled out in 86. A 26 years old asymptomatic woman is
this patient. What should be the next inves- found to have arrhythmias and a systol-
tigation: ic murmur associated with midsystolic?
A. CT guided FNAC Which investigation would you use:
B. Bronchoscopy and biopsy A. Electrophysiological testing
C. Sputum cytology B. CT scan
D. X-ray chest C. Echocardiography
Ans. B D. Angiography
Ans. C
81. A man presents with fever, weight loss and
cough. Mantoux reads an induration of 17 × 87. A patient complains of intermittent claudi-
19 mm; sputum cytology is negative for AFB. cation, dizziness and headache. Most likely
Most likely diagnosis is: cardiac lesion is:
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis A. TOF
B. Fungal infection B. ASD
C. Viral infection C. PDA
D. Pneumonia D. Coarctation of aorta
Ans. A Ans. D

82. Pulmonary edema associated with normal 88. All of the following are true about ASD ex-
PCWP is observed, which of these is not a cept:
cause: A. Right atrial hypertrophy
A. High altitude B. Left atrial hypertrophy
B. Cocaine overdose C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
C. Post cardiopulmonary bypass D. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Bilateral renal artery stenosis Ans. B
Ans. D
89. Mitral valve vegetations do not usually em-
83. An ABG analysis shows: pH 7.2, raised pCO2, bolise to:
decreased HCO3. Diagnosis is: A. Lung
A. Respiratory acidosis B. liver
B. Compensated metabolic acidosis C. spleen
C. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis D. brain
D. Respiratory alkalosis Ans. A
Ans. C
90. A woman has septic abortion done, vegeta-
84. ABG analysis of a patient on ventilator tion on tricuspid valve is likely to go to:
shows decreased pCO2, normal pO2, pH 7.5. A. Septic infarcts to lung
Diagnosis is: B. liver
A. Respiratory acidosis C. spleen infarcts
B. Metabolic alkalosis D. Emboli to brain
C. Respiratory alkalosis Ans. A
D. Metabolic acidosis
Ans. C 91. Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
85. In a patient of acute inferior wall MI. Best B. Constrictive pericarditis
modality of treatment is: C. Cardiac tamponade
Davinci Medical Academy
 D. RV infarct 96. A patient with an Hb of 6 g%, WBC count of
Ans. C 2000/cmm, has a normal different count
except for having 6% blasts, platelets are
92. A patient presents with engorged neck reduced to 80,000/cmm; moderate spleno-
veins, BP 80/50 mmHg and pulse rate of megaly is present. Possible diagnosis is:
100/min following blunt trauma to the A. Leukemia
chest. Diagnosis is: B. Aplastic anemia
A. Pneumothorax C. HEMOLYSIS
B. Right ventricular failure D. lTP
C. Cardiac tamponade Ans. A
D. Hemothorax
Ans. C 97. A patient being investigated for anemia has
a dry marrow tap; peripheral smear reveals
93. Which of the following is not seen on hemo- tear drop cells. Most likely diagnosis is:
globin electrophoresis insickle cell anemia: A. Leukemia
A. HbA B. Lymphoma
B. HbA2 C. Myelofibrosis
C. HbF D. Polycythemia rubra vera
D. HbS Ans. C
Ans. A
98. Tumor associated with polycythemia vera
94. False statement regarding DIC is: is:
A. Thrombocytopenia A. Sarcoma
B. Decreased fibrinogen B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Decreased PTT C. Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
D. Increased PT D. None of the above
Ans. C Ans. C

95. Thrombocytopenia occurs in all except: 99. A young patient presents with jaundice. To-
A. Henoch Schonlein purpura tal bilirubin is 21 mg%, direct is 9.6 mg%,
B. TTP alkaline phosphatase is 84 KA units. Diag-
C. DIC nosis is:
D. Leukemia A. Hemolytic jaundice
Ans. A B. Viral hepatitis
C. Chronic active hepatitis

General Medicine
 D. Obstructive jaundice B. Middle carotid artery involvement
Ans. D C. Emboli to anterior circulation
D. None of the above
100. A young male with gallbladder stones Ans. A
shows the following test results: serum bili-
rubin 2.5 mg%, Hb 6 g%, urine test positive 106. Dinesh, a 56 years aged man presents
for urobilinogen. Diagnosis is: with complaints of slowness of movements,
A. Hemolytic jaundice postural instability, tremors, rigidity and
B. Obstructive jaundice memory loss. Most likely diagnosis is:
C. Hepatocellular jaundice A. Multi-infarct dementia
D. Protoporphyria B. Alzheimer’s disease
Ans. A C. Parkinsonism
D. None of the above
101. An 18 years old male presents with mas- Ans. C
sive hematemesis. He has history of fever
for the past 14 days for which he was man- 107. All of the following may be seen in Wil-
aged with drugs. Moderate splenomegaly is son’s disease except:
present. Diagnosis is: A. Cerebellar ataxia
A. NSAID induced duodenal ulcer B. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Drug induced gastritis C. Dysphagia
C. Esophageal varices D. Chorea
D. None of the above Ans. B
Ans. C
108. An elderly man presents with features
102. Urinalysis shows RBC casts. Likely source of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in downward
is: gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely
A. kidney diagnosis is:
B. Ureter A. Parkinson disease
C. Bladder B. Progressive supranuclear gaze palsy
D. Urethra C. Alzheimer’s disease
Ans. A D. None of the above.
Ans. B
103. A young man develops gross hematuria
3 days after an attack of URTI. Most likely 109. A chromosomal anomaly associated
renal Pathology is: with Alzheimer’s dementia is:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis A. Trisomy 18
B. Minimal change disease B. Patau syndrome
C. IgA nephropathy C. Trisomy 21
D. Membranous glomerulonephritis D. Turner syndrome
Ans. C Ans. C

104. A patient’s CSF report reads as follows: 110. All are true about Huntington’s disease,
sugar 40 mg%, protein 150 mg%, chloride except:
550 mg%; lymphocytosis present. The pic- A. Chorea
ture is suggestive of: B. Depression, apathy
A. Fungal meningitis C. Progressive dementia
B. Viral meningitis D. Cog-wheel rigidity
C. TB meningitis Ans. D
D. Leukemia
Ans. C 111. A 30-year-old male complains of loss of
erection; he has low testosterone and high
105. Lacunar infarcts are caused by: prolactin level in blood. What is the likely
A. Lipohyalinosis of penetrating arteries diagnosis?
Davinci Medical Academy
 A. Pituitary adenoma ciated with paresthesias of the right upper
B. Testicular failure and lower limb. Most likely diagnosis is:
C. Craniopharyngioma A. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Cushing’s syndrome B. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
Ans. A C. Migraine
D. Cluster headache
112. A patient meets with an accident with Ans. C
resultant transection of the pituitary stalk.
What will not occur: 116. All of the following are features of MEN
A. Diabetes mellitus IIa, except:
B. Diabetes insipidus A. Pituitary tumor
C. Hyperprolactinemia B. Pheochromocytoma
D. Hypothyroidism C. Medullary CA thyroid
Ans. A D. Parathyroid adenoma
Ans. A
113. A woman has bilateral headache that
worsens with emotional stress. She has two 117. A patient with Cushingoid features pres-
children, both doing badly in school. Diag- ents with hemoptysis. He shows no response
nosis is: to dexamethasone suppression test. Most
A. Migraine likely diagnosis is:
B. Cluster headache A. Adrenal hyperplasia
C. Tension headache B. Adrenal adenoma
D. Trigeminal neuralgia C. CA lung with ectopic ACTH production
Ans. C D. Pituitary microadenoma
Ans. C
114. A female aged 30 years, presents with
episodic throbbing headache for past 4 118. An obese patient presented in casual-
years with nausea and vomiting. Most likely
ty in an unconscious state. His blood sugar
diagnosis is: measured 400 mg%, urine tested positive
A. Migraine for sugar and ketones. Drug most useful in
B. Cluster headache management is:
C. Angle closure glaucoma A. Glibenclamide
D. Temporal arteritis B. Troglitazone
Ans. A C. Insulin
D. Chlorpropamide
115. A woman complains of headache asso- Ans. C
General Medicine
 C. Culture for infection
119. Which of the following is not associated D. All of the above
with thymoma: Ans. B
A. Red cell aplasia
B. Myasthenia gravis 125. True statement about neurocysticerco-
C. Hypergammaglobulinemia sis is:
D. Compression of the superior A. Seizures due to neurocysticercosis are
mediastinum resistant to antiepileptic drugs
Ans. C B. Albendazole is superior to praziquantel
in the treatment of above condition
120. A young basketball player with height C. Common presentation is 6th cranial
188 cm and arm span 197 cm has a diastolic nerve palsy and hemiparesis
murmur best heard in second right inter- D. Steroids are used in the management of
costal space. Likely cause of murmur is: hydrocephalus
A. AS Ans. B
B. Coarctation of aorta
C. AR 126. All of the following are true regarding a
D. MR patient with acid peptic disease except:
Ans. C A. Misoprostol is the drug of choice in
patients on NSAIDs
121. A patient presents with arthritis, hyper- B. DU is preventable by the use of single
pigmen- tation of SKIN and hypogonadism. night-time H2 blockers
Likely diagnosis is: C. Omeprazole may help ulcers refractory
A. Hemochromatosis to H2 blockers
B. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor of lung D. Misoprostol is DOC in pregnant patients
C. Wilson’s disease Ans. D
D. Rheumatoid arthrits
Ans. A 127. A man presents with mass at duodeno-
jejunal flexure invading renal papillae. His-
122. In myasthenia gravis, correct statement topathology reports it as lymphoma. True
regarding thymectomy is: statement is:
A. Should be done in all cases A. II E stage
B. Should be done in cases with ocular B. III E stage
involvement only C. IV E stage
C. Not required if controlled by medical D. Staging cannot be done until bone
management marrow examination is performed
D. Should be done only in cases that are Ans. C
associated with thymoma
Ans. A 128. A 45 years male presents with hyper-
tension. He has sudden abnormal flinging
123. Most common fungal infection in febrile movements in right upper and lower limbs.
neutropenia is: Most likely site of hemorrahge is:
A. Aspergillus niger A. Substantia nigra
B. Candida B. Caudate nuclei
C. Mucormycosis C. Pons
D. Aspergillus fumigatus D. Subthalamic nuclei
Ans. B Ans. D

124. The following group of tests should be 129. True about haemophilia A are all except:
done to optimise graft uptake in bone mar- A. PTT increased
row transplant: B. PT increased
A. Blood grouping C. Clotting time is increased
B. HLA matching D. Serum levels of factor VIII are decreased
Davinci Medical Academy
 Ans. B 134. The most common pathogens responsi-
ble for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU
130. IPPV can cause: are:
A. Barotrauma A. Gram positive organisms.
B. Pleural effusion B. Gram negative organisms.
C. Increased venous return C. Mycoplasma.
D. None of the above D. Virus infections.
Ans. A Ans. B

131. Characteristic finding in CT in a TB is: 135. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary

A. Exudate seen in basal cistern function test in a patient with severe kypho-
B. Hydrocephalus is non communicating scoliosis includes:
C. Calcification commonly seen in A. Increased RV/TLC.
cerebellum B. Reduced FEV1/FVC.
D. Ventriculitis is a common finding C. Reduced FEV25-75.
Ans. A D. Increased FRC.
Ans. A
132. Vegetations on undersurface of AV valves
are found in: 136. Which one of the following drugs has
A. Acute rheumatic carditis been shown to offer protection from gas-
B. Limban Sack’s endocarditis tric aspiration syndrome in a patient with
C. Non thrombotic bacterial endocarditis symptoms of reflux?
D. Chronic rheumatic carditis A. Ondansetron.
Ans. B B. Metoclopramide.
C. Sodium citrate.
133. Triage means: D. Atropine.
A. Sorting out of cases on availability of Ans. C
medical resources and severity of 137. Which one of the following is true of ad-
patient’s condition renal suppression due to steroid therapy?
B. Patients are divided into 3 groups A. It is not associated with atrophy of the
C. Severely injured patients are attended adrenal glands.
first in military camps B. It does not occur in patients receiving
D. None of the above inhaled steroids.
Ans. A C. It should be expected in anyone receiv-
ing

General Medicine
 > 5 mg, prednisolone daily. C. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
D. Following cessation, the stress response D. Calcitonin.
normalizes after 8 weeks. Ans. B
Ans. C
143. All of the following are the causes of rel-
138. A 30-year-old male patient presents ative polycythemia except:
with complaints of weakness in right upper A. Dehydration.
and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He B. Dengue haemorrhagic fever.
developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and C. Gaisbock syndrome.
3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on D. High altitude.
left lside. On examination, BP was 160/140 Ans. D
mmHg, all peripheral pulses were palpable
and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. In- 144. All of the following may cause ST seg-
vestigations showed a Hb12 gm, TLC12000 ment elevation on EKG, except:
cumm, platelets 4,30,000, ESR49 mm. Urine A. Early repolarization variant.
examination showed proteinuria and RBC B. Constrictive pericarditis.
1015/ hpf with no casts. Which of the fol- C. Ventricular aneurysm.
lowing is the most likely diagnosis? D. Prinzmetal angina.
A. Polyarteritis nodosa. Ans. B
B. Systemic LUPUS erythematosus.
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis. 145. 5’-Nucleotidase activity is increased in:
D. Mixed cryoglobulemia. A. Bone diseases.
Ans. A B. Prostate cancer.
C. Chronic renal failure.
139. Which of the following infestation leads D. Cholestatic disorders.
to malabsorption? Ans. D
A. Giardia lamblia.
B. Ascaris lumbricoides. 146. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because:
C. Necater americana. A. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen.
D. Ancylostoma duodenale. #NAME?
Ans. A C. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal
tissues.
140. All of the following can cause osteoporo- D. Microcytic red cells become trapped in
sis except: the placenta.
A. Hyperparathyroidism. Ans. C
B. Steroid use.
C. Fluorosis. 147. Cluster headache is characterized by all
D. Thyrotoxicosis. except:
Ans. C A. Affects predominantly females.
141. Serum angioten- B. Unilateral headache.
sin converting enzyme may C. Onset typically in 20-50 years of life.
be raised in all of the following except: D. Associated with conjunctival conges-
A. Sarcoidosis. tion.
B. Silicosis. Ans. A
C. Berylliosis.
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma. 148. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis
Ans. D of myasthenia gravis is:
A. Elevated serum ACh-receptor binding
142. Hypercalcemia associated with malig- antibodies.
nancy is most often mediated by: B. Repetitive nerve stimulation test.
A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C. Positive edrophonium test.
B. Parthyroid hormone related protein D. Measurement of jitter by single fibre
(PTHrP) electromyography.
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 Ans. A Ans. A

149. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to 154. Which of the following is a cause of re-
all of the following, except: versible dementia?
A. Myelopathy. A. Subacute combined degeneration.
B. Optic atrophy. B. Picks disease.
C. Peripheral neuropathy. C. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease.
D. Myopathy. D. Alzheimer’s disease.
Ans. D Ans. A

150. EEG is usually abnormal in all of the fol- 155. Palpable purpura could occur in the fol-
lowing except: lowing conditions, except:
A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. A. Thrombocytopenia.
B. Locked-in state. B. Small-vessel vasculitis.
C. Creutzfoldt-Jackob disease. C. Disseminated gonococcal infection.
D. Hepatic encephalopathy. D. Acute meningococcemia.
Ans. B Ans. A

151. All of the following are neurologic chan- 156. A 59-year-old man with severe myxoma-
nelopathies except: tous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic,
A. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis. with a left ventricular ejection fraction of
B. Episodic ataxia type 1. 45% and an end-systolic diameter index
C. FAMILIAL hemiplegic migraine. of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treat-
D. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1. ment is:
Ans. D A. Mitral valve repair of replacement.
B. No treatment.
152. Which of the following is not a neuropar- C. ACE inhibitor therapy.
asite? D. Digoxin and diuretic therapy.
A. Taenia solium. Ans. A
B. Acanthamoeba.
C. Naegleria. 157. The gold standard for the diagnosis of
D. Trichinella spiralis. osteoporosis is:
Ans. D A. Dual energy X-ray absorptimetry.
B. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.
153. A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a C. Ultrasound.
smoker presents with a 3 hour history of D. Quantiative computed tomography.
severe retrosternal chest pain and increas- Ans. A
ing shortness of breath. He started having
this pain while eating, which was constant 158. All of the following CSF findings are pres-
and radiated to the back and interscapu- ent in tuberculous meningitis, except:
lar region. He was a known hypertensive. A. Raised protein levels.
On examination, he was cold and clammy B. Low chloride levels.
with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of C. Cob web formation.
80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All periph- D. Raised sugar levels.
eral pulses were present and equal. Breath Ans. D
sounds were decreased at the left lung base
and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion. 159. Which one of the following serum levels
Which one of the following is the most likely would help in distinguishing an acute liver
diagnosis? disease from chronic liver diseae?
A. Acute aortic dissection. A. Aminotransaminase.
B. Acute myocardial infarction. B. Alkaline phosphatase.
C. Rupture of the esophagus. C. Bilirubin.
D. Acute pulmonary embolism. D. Albumin.
General Medicine
 Ans. D C. Colon cancer.
D. Ovarian cancer.
160. All of the following conditions are known Ans. C
to cause diabetes insipidus except:
A. Multiple sclerosis. PAEDIATRICS
B. Head injury. 164. The protective effects of breast milk ar
C. Histiocytosis. known to be associated with:
D. Viral encephalitis. A. IgM antibodies.
Ans. A B. Lysozyme.
161. Paralysis of 3rd, 4th 6th nerves with in- C. Mast cells.
volvement of ophthalmic division of 5th D. IgA antibodies.
nerve, localizes the lesion to: Ans. D
A. Cavernous sinus.
B. Apex of orbit. 165. Study the following carefully: Read the
C. Brainstem. pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease
D. Base of skull. in the family is:
Ans. A A. Autosomal recessive type.
B. Autosomal dominant type.
162. Which one of the following is the most C. X linked dominant type.
common location of hypertensive bleed in D. X linked recessive type.
the brain? Ans. D
A. Putamen/external capsule.
B. Pons. 166. Diagnosis of beta thalassemia is estab-
C. Ventricles. lished by:
D. Lobar white matter. A. NESTROFT test.
Ans. A B. HbA1c estimation.
C. Hb electrophoresis.
163. In which of the following diseases, the D. Target cells in peripheral smear.
overall survival is increased by screening Ans. C
procedure?
A. Prostate cancer. 167. Blood specimen for neonatal thyroid
B. Lung cancer. screening is obtained on:
Davinci Medical Academy
 A. Cord blood. PT.
B. 24 hours after birth. B. Isolated prolonged PT with a normal
C. 48 hours after birth. PTT.
D. 72 hours after birth. C. Prolongation of both PT and PTT.
Ans. D D. Prolongation of thrombin time.
Ans. A
168. A child with recurrent urinary tract in-
fections is most likely to show: 174. The chances of having an unaffected
A. Posterior urethral valves. baby, when both parents have achondropla-
B. Vesicoureteric reflux. sia, are:
C. Neurogenic bladder. A. 0%
D. Renal and ureteric calculi. B. 25%
Ans. B C. 50%
169. All of the following are true about mani- D. 100%
festations of vitamin E deficiency, except: Ans. B
A. Hemolytic anemia.
B. Posterior column abnormalities. 175. All of the following therapies may be
C. Cerebellar ataxia. required in a 1 hourold infant with severe
D. Autonomic dysfunction. birth asphyxia except:
Ans. D A. Glucose
B. Dexamethasone.
170. Differential expression of same gene de- C. Calcium gluconate.
pending on parent of origin is referred to D. Normal saline.
as: Ans. B
A. Genomic imprinting.
B. Mosaicism. 176. The most common leukocytoclastic vas-
C. Anticipation. culitis affecting children is:
D. Non penetrance. A. Takayasu disease.
Ans. A B. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome
(Kawasaki disease)
171. The appropriate approach to a neonate C. Henoch Schonlein purpura.
presenting with vaginal bleeding on day 4 D. Polyarteritis nodosa.
of life is: Ans. C
A. Administration of vitamin K.
B. Investigation for bleeding disorder. 177. A four year old boy was admitted with a
C. No specific therapy. history of abdominal pain and fever for two
D. Administration of 10ml/kg of fresh frozen months, maculopapular rash for ten days,
plasma over 4 hours. and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for
Ans. C three days. On examination, liver and spleen
were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively
172. Which one of the following drugs is used below the costal margins. His hemoglobin
for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hy- was 109/L, which´ 109/L and total leukocyte
perplasia? count 70 ´10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 includ-
A. Hydrocortisone. ed 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examina-
B. Prednisolone. tion revealed a cellular marrow comprising
C. Fludrocortisone. 45% blasts and 34% eosinophils and eosin-
D. Dexamethasone. ophilic precursors. The blasts stained neg-
Ans. D ative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific
esterase and were positive for CD19, CD10,
173. The coagulation profile in a 13 year old girl CD22 and CD20. Which one of the following
with menorrhagia having vonWillebrands statements in not true about this disease?
disease is: A. Eosinophils are not of the neoplastic
A. Isolated prolonged PTT with a normal clone.
General Medicine
 B. t(5:14) rearrangement may be detected C. Unilateral renal dysplasia.
in blasts. D. Calyceal cyst.
C. Peripheral blood wosinophilia may Ans. C
normalize with chemotherapy.
D. Inv (16) is often detected in the blasts 183. The most common type of total anoma-
and the eosinophils. lous pulmonary venous connection is:
Ans. D A. Supracardiac
B. Infracardiac.
178. kidney biopsy from a child with hemo- C. Mixed.
lytic uremic syndrome characteristically D. Cardiac.
most likely presents features of: Ans. A
A. Thrombotic microangiopathy.
B. Proliferative glomerulonephritis. 184. The most common cause of renal scar-
C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. ring in a 3 year old child is:
D. Minimal change disease. A. Trauma.
Ans. A B. Tuberculosis.
C. Vesicoureteral reflux induced
179. One of the intestinal enzymes that is pyelonephritis.
generally deficient in children following an D. Interstitial nephritis.
attack of severe infectious enteritis is: Ans. C
A. Lactase.
B. Trypsin. 185. Which one of the following is the com-
C. Lipase. mon cause of congential hydrocephalus is?
D. Amylase. A. Craniosynostosis.
Ans. A B. Intra uterine meningitis.
C. Aqueductal stenosis.
180. A new born presented with bloated ab- D. Malformations of great Vein of Galen .
domen shortly after birth with passing of Ans. C
less meconium. A full-thickness biopsy of
the rectum was carried out. Which one of 186. In a child, non-functioning kidney is best
the following rectal biopsy findings is most diagnosed by:
likely to be present? A. Ultrasonography.
A. Fibrosis of submucosa. B. IVU.
B. Hyalinisation of the muscular coat. C. DTPA renogram.
C. Thickened muscularis propria. D. Creatinine clearance.
D. Lack of ganglion cells. Ans. C
Ans. D
187. The most common malignant neoplasm
181. Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized of infancy is:
by all except: A. Malignant teratoma.
A. Return of left ventricle & right ventricle B. Neuroblastoma.
to normal size. C. Wilms’ tumor.
B. Pulmonary veins not distended. D. Hepatoblastoma.
C. Pruning of peripheral pulmonary Ans. B
arteries.
D. Dilatation of central pulmonary arter- 188. The most common presentation of a
ies. child with Wilms’ tumor is:
Ans. A A. An asymptomatic abdominal mass.
B. Haematuria.
182. Which of the following is the most com- C. Hypertension.
mon renal cystic disease in infants is? D. Hemoptysis due to pulmonary
A. Polycystic kidnesy. secondary.
B. Simple renal cyst. Ans. A
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General Medicine